The Battle of Britain Was The First Defeat For The German Luftwaffe.

[Sternjaeger II]

Originally Posted by blackmme

Denial Lets not bring Egypt and the North African theatre into this!

So there was no change whatsoever in the tactical situation or strength of the Luftwaffe between july 1940 and October 1940!

what do you think, that when one starts a war with a certain number of aircraft they think you won't have any losses?! Battle losses were taken into account even by their incompetent leaders, they probably didn't think they would have lost as many, but and the production numbers show that the Luftwaffe soon replenished the losses with the production of new planes.

Besides the evolution of aircraft was so fast that Emils would have been obsolescent by 1941, it was a costly, disposable force.

My gosh Stern, there really is no point discussing with you is there on this subject? Everything you accuse the people you disagree with of you are exhibiting to a greater degree.

Regards Mike

uhmm if you say so.. it doesn't make it right..
I don't accuse nobody, who's "the people"? I'm making a point, either you agree or disagree..

Originally Posted by bongodriver

Appart from the complete change of tactics to the 'blitz' bombings, and the losses suffered in the BOB

see my answer above: losses are always taken into account. The change of tactics doesn't mean they lost, they kept on dropping bombs or V1/2s over the UK.

But they did stop after 3 months of half hearted trying.

yes, it wasn't as fast and easy as they thought. They still kept on dropping bombs with a more efficient and less costly manner, and one harder to stop.

does German logic override any other? sounds one sided to me, in denial of what exactly?

no, but it's a different one. You keep on applying the same logic to different countries, it doesn't quite work like that, but then again, it's a typical empire mentality, nothing to be blamed for of course!